How is it possible to assert that a law with such universal appeal as environmental law is a law "for the rich"? Three reasons can be given, all stemming from the fact that environmental law has essentially originated in rich countries. This law is said to accompany contemporary transformations of the consciousness of rich countries that are less and less self-assured, and even turn to poor countries to look for ways of life that could save them from themselves. But is not such a division between rich and poor a bit outdated to interpret a law whose goal is the construction of a common universe? © Le Seuil. Tous droits réservés pour tous pays.
CITATION STYLE
Ewald, F. (2008). Le droit de renvironnement: Un droit de riches? Pouvoirs: Revue d’Etudes Constitutionnelles et Politiques, 127(4), 13–21. https://doi.org/10.3917/pouv.127.0013
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